How Currency Swaps Are Priced

How discount curves, FX rates, and cross-currency basis determine the fair value of a currency swap.

Pricing a currency swap means valuing two sets of future cash flows in two different currencies and comparing them on a common basis. At inception, dealers normally set the contract so that the value is approximately zero to both sides, ignoring transaction costs and credit adjustments. After inception, the mark-to-market changes as discount curves, benchmark expectations, FX rates, and basis spreads move.

For DFOL, students do not need full quant-library implementation. They do need to understand the pricing logic well enough to identify what drives fair value and why the mark-to-market changes over time.

The Inception Objective

When a new currency swap is struck, the quoted fixed rate or spread is chosen so that:

  • the present value of one leg
  • equals the present value of the other leg

after both are expressed in a common valuation currency.

Conceptually:

$$ \text{PV(leg A)} = \text{PV(leg B)} $$

This is the same high-level idea as an interest rate swap, but with one additional complication: the legs are in different currencies.

Main Inputs to Pricing

The value of a currency swap depends on:

  • the notional amount in each currency
  • current spot or agreed exchange relationships
  • the fixed coupon, if any
  • projected floating rates on any floating leg
  • discount factors for each currency
  • any cross-currency basis spread
  • whether principal is exchanged at inception and maturity

Students should remember that there is no single all-purpose discount curve for both legs. Each currency has its own term structure.

Discounting the Two Legs

If a leg is denominated in Canadian dollars, it should be discounted using appropriate Canadian discount factors. If a leg is denominated in U.S. dollars, it should be discounted using U.S. discount factors.

In current market practice, modern discounting intuition is tied to overnight-rate frameworks such as:

  • CORRA in Canadian dollars
  • SOFR in U.S. dollars

That does not mean every exam question becomes a model-building exercise. It means students should not fall back on outdated benchmark assumptions when the question is about current-market pricing.

Fixed-Leg Valuation

The fixed leg is straightforward once the coupon is known:

$$ \text{PV}_{\text{fixed}} = N \times K \times \sum_{i=1}^{n} \alpha_i P(0,t_i) $$

Where:

  • N is the notional
  • K is the fixed coupon
  • \alpha_i is the accrual fraction
  • P(0,t_i) is the discount factor to payment date t_i

If principal is exchanged at maturity, the discounted principal repayment must also be added to the valuation of that leg.

Floating-Leg Valuation

The floating leg requires projected future benchmark cash flows. Market participants typically use forward curves to estimate those floating payments.

Conceptually, the steps are:

  1. project future benchmark fixings
  2. calculate expected coupon amounts
  3. discount those projected amounts in the leg’s own currency

For a newly reset floating leg, the value is often close to par under standard assumptions. As time passes and curves move, the floating leg’s market value changes.

Converting to a Common Valuation Currency

Because the two legs are in different currencies, they must be expressed in a common valuation currency before the values can be compared.

One conceptual way to write the foreign-currency leg in domestic terms is:

$$ \text{PV}_{\text{foreign in domestic}} = \sum_{i=1}^{n} \left(CF_i^{F} \times D_F(0,t_i) \times X_i\right) $$

Where:

  • CF_i^{F} is the foreign-currency cash flow
  • D_F(0,t_i) is the foreign-currency discount factor
  • X_i represents the relevant FX conversion assumption

The exact implementation can vary, but the key exam idea is stable: each leg is valued in its own currency first, then translated onto a common basis.

Cross-Currency Basis Matters

Currency swap pricing is not just spot FX plus two domestic curves. The market may require an additional cross-currency basis spread to reflect supply, demand, funding pressures, and balance-sheet conditions across currencies.

Students do not need a full basis-curve construction process, but they should understand the point:

  • if one currency is structurally more in demand for swap funding
  • the quoted spread may adjust to reflect that imbalance

Ignoring cross-currency basis can produce a misleading valuation.

    flowchart LR
	    A["Domestic discount curve"] --> D["Leg valuation"]
	    B["Foreign discount curve"] --> D
	    C["FX and basis inputs"] --> D
	    D --> E["Common-currency present value"]

Why the Mark-to-Market Changes

After inception, the swap’s value can move because:

  • interest-rate curves shift
  • expected floating coupons change
  • FX rates move
  • basis spreads widen or tighten
  • the remaining maturity shortens

This is why a swap that began at zero can later have meaningful positive value to one side and negative value to the other.

Common Pitfalls

  • discounting both legs with the same curve
  • assuming spot FX alone determines value
  • ignoring the role of cross-currency basis
  • using outdated benchmark assumptions for modern pricing
  • confusing fair value at inception with mark-to-market after inception

Key Takeaways

  • Currency swap pricing compares the present value of two currency legs on a common valuation basis.
  • Each leg must be discounted using the appropriate curve for its own currency.
  • Floating legs require projected benchmark cash flows, while fixed legs are valued from known coupons.
  • FX conversion and cross-currency basis are central to the valuation.
  • The swap’s mark-to-market changes after inception as rates, FX, and basis move.

Sample Exam Question

What is the clearest reason a currency swap cannot be priced by looking only at the fixed coupon and spot exchange rate?

  • A. Because no discounting is needed
  • B. Because both legs also depend on discount curves, future floating rates, and basis effects
  • C. Because currency swaps are always exchange-traded
  • D. Because principal is never exchanged

Correct Answer: B. Because both legs also depend on discount curves, future floating rates, and basis effects

Explanation: Currency swap valuation depends on the full discounted cash-flow structure of both legs, not just the coupon and current spot FX rate.

### What is the pricing objective for a newly negotiated currency swap? - [x] To set terms so the present value of the two legs is approximately equal at inception - [ ] To maximize the fixed payer's immediate gain - [ ] To eliminate all future FX risk permanently - [ ] To avoid using discount factors > **Explanation:** New swap terms are normally quoted so the contract begins with approximately zero value to both sides. ### Why must each currency leg be discounted separately? - [ ] Because each leg is always cleared in a different country - [x] Because each currency has its own discount curve and benchmark structure - [ ] Because discounting applies only to fixed legs - [ ] Because floating legs are never discounted > **Explanation:** Each currency leg must be valued using the term structure appropriate to that currency. ### Which benchmark framework is most consistent with current Canadian discounting intuition? - [ ] CDOR as the default for all new trades - [ ] LIBOR - [x] CORRA - [ ] Prime rate only > **Explanation:** Current Canadian benchmark thinking is built around CORRA rather than legacy CDOR default assumptions. ### What does the floating leg require for valuation? - [ ] Only the original fixed coupon - [ ] Only the maturity date - [x] Projected future benchmark cash flows and discounting - [ ] No market inputs after inception > **Explanation:** Floating coupons must be projected using forward-looking benchmark assumptions and then discounted. ### Why is cross-currency basis important? - [ ] Because it replaces FX entirely - [ ] Because it applies only to commodity swaps - [x] Because it reflects funding and market imbalance between currencies and can affect quoted value - [ ] Because it eliminates counterparty risk > **Explanation:** Cross-currency basis captures an important market pricing adjustment beyond spot FX and domestic curves. ### Why can the mark-to-market of a currency swap move after inception? - [ ] Because the notional disappears - [ ] Because discounting no longer matters - [x] Because rates, FX, basis, and remaining maturity all change over time - [ ] Because fixed coupons reset daily > **Explanation:** The value of the swap changes as the market inputs used in valuation evolve.
Revised on Friday, April 24, 2026